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#1
05-03-2004, 06:21 AM
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LOTR Question
So yeah, I've seen all 3...
The ring itself, apart from (I think) swaying your good-bad ratio, and working for you/not working for you, and alerting the underlings of the big-bad (I'll be fucked if I can remember ANY lotr names...Sauron was it??) to your location, aaand probably a bunch of other stuff some nerd will no doubt point out...it makes you invisible right? So, I was just thinking about this - WHY then, in the beginning of the first LOTR, the big battle where they originally overthrew the bad guy by cutting his "ring finger" off, was HE not invisible? I mean you'd think that even if it was by his choice whether he was invisible or not, in a combat situation, invisibility would be an advantage... So - what the hell?? Why wasn't he invisible?
__________________
The door opened...you got in..:rolleyes: 
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#2
05-03-2004, 08:21 AM
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C'mon motherfuckers....somebody gotta agree or disagree with me on this!!
__________________
The door opened...you got in..:rolleyes:
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#3
05-03-2004, 08:23 AM
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Because its not neccesarily an invisiblity ring and sauron controlls it.
__________________
"Im the most cold hearted son of a bitch youll ever meet"
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#4
05-03-2004, 08:33 AM
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Thanks for the reply...but....
WHY do you think he wasn't invisible? I mean, that WOULD have given him more of an advantage don't you think? The only idea I can come up with is that the boy musta had some wicked ego-trip happenin', ah well, ego-trippin's alll good fun 'til somebody loses a finger...:D
__________________
The door opened...you got in..:rolleyes:
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