LOTR Question
 

So yeah, I've seen all 3...
The ring itself, apart from (I think) swaying your good-bad ratio, and working for you/not working for you, and alerting the underlings of the big-bad (I'll be fucked if I can remember ANY lotr names...Sauron was it??) to your location, aaand probably a bunch of other stuff some nerd will no doubt point out...it makes you invisible right?
So, I was just thinking about this - WHY then, in the beginning of the first LOTR, the big battle where they originally overthrew the bad guy by cutting his "ring finger" off, was HE not invisible?
I mean you'd think that even if it was by his choice whether he was invisible or not, in a combat situation, invisibility would be an advantage...
So - what the hell?? Why wasn't he invisible?

C'mon motherfuckers....somebody gotta agree or disagree with me on this!!

Because its not neccesarily an invisiblity ring and sauron controlls it.

Thanks for the reply...but....
WHY do you think he wasn't invisible?
I mean, that WOULD have given him more of an advantage don't you think?
The only idea I can come up with is that the
boy musta had some wicked ego-trip happenin',
ah well, ego-trippin's alll good fun 'til somebody loses a finger...:D